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Sutton Selective Eligibility Test · Stage 1

Sutton SET Mathematics Mock Paper 10

Preparation for the Sutton Selective Eligibility Test, sat for admission to Wilson's School, Sutton Grammar School, Wallington County Grammar School, Nonsuch High School for Girls and Wallington High School for Girls. This is an original mock paper written by Revision Library. It is not a past paper and it is not an official specimen.

Print the paper (PDF)Paper and mark scheme (PDF)

Time allowed
45 minutes
Total marks
50
Questions
50
Level
Stretch
  • You have 45 minutes for this paper. There are 50 questions and each question is worth 1 mark.
  • Each question has five options, A to E. Mark one answer for each question on the separate answer sheet, in pencil. If you change your answer, rub the old mark out completely.
  • You may not use a calculator and there is no rough paper. Do any working you need in the margin or in your head.
  • There is no negative marking, so every question is worth answering.

Mathematics

Answer every question. Choose exactly one answer, A to E, for each question.

Look at the options before doing long calculations. Parity, the last digit, the unit and the rough size may let you rule out answers quickly.

Diagrams described in words are not necessarily drawn to scale. Use only the information given.

  1. 11 mark

    The harvest total 5?72 rounds to 5000 when rounded to the nearest thousand. It is also a multiple of 9.

    Which digit replaces the question mark?

    1. A0
    2. B2
    3. C4
    4. D5
    5. E8
  2. 21 mark

    Work out 18 + 144 divided by (5 + 7) x 6.

    1. A30
    2. B72
    3. C81
    4. D88.8
    5. E90
  3. 31 mark

    A grower sells 3/8 of a harvest in the morning. In the afternoon, she sells 2/5 of what remained after the morning.

    What fraction of the original harvest is left?

    1. A9/40
    2. B3/8
    3. C2/5
    4. D17/40
    5. E5/8
  4. 41 mark

    A pool treatment tank contains 4.5 litres of solution. Staff use 850 ml, then use another 1.275 litres.

    How much solution remains, in millilitres?

    1. A2.375 ml
    2. B850 ml
    3. C2125 ml
    4. D2375 ml
    5. E6625 ml
  5. 51 mark

    The two equal sides of an isosceles triangular model meet at its top vertex. The exterior angle beside the top interior angle is 124 degrees.

    What is the size of each base angle?

    1. A62 degrees
    2. B68 degrees
    3. C90 degrees
    4. D118 degrees
    5. E124 degrees
  6. 61 mark

    At a garden centre, red, yellow and white pots are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. After 18 white pots are sold, the numbers of yellow and white pots are equal.

    How many pots were there before the sale?

    1. A18
    2. B45
    3. C63
    4. D135
    5. E153
  7. 71 mark

    Five harvest loads weigh 18 kg, 21 kg, 24 kg, 24 kg and 31 kg. A sixth load was omitted from the record. The mean mass of all six loads is 24 kg.

    What is the omitted mass?

    1. A6 kg
    2. B26 kg
    3. C118 kg
    4. D144 kg
    5. E262 kg
  8. 81 mark

    After 15% of a crate of harvested pears is rejected, 340 pears remain.

    How many pears were in the crate at first?

    1. A51
    2. B289
    3. C340
    4. D391
    5. E400
  9. 91 mark

    Digit cards 1, 3, 4 and 8 are used exactly once. The number made must be greater than 3000 and divisible by 4.

    What is the smallest number that can be made?

    1. A3148
    2. B3184
    3. C3418
    4. D4138
    5. E8431
  10. 101 mark

    A model solid has 5 faces, 6 vertices and 9 edges. Two of its faces are triangles and its other faces are rectangles.

    Which solid is it?

    1. Aa cuboid
    2. Ba square-based pyramid
    3. Ca triangular prism
    4. Da triangular-based pyramid
    5. Ea cylinder
  11. 111 mark

    An overnight pool filter starts at 22:47 and stops at 00:18 the next day.

    For how many minutes does it run?

    1. A18 minutes
    2. B29 minutes
    3. C31 minutes
    4. D71 minutes
    5. E91 minutes
  12. 121 mark

    A number machine starts with a whole number. It multiplies by 4, adds 18, then doubles the result. The final number is 220.

    What was the starting number?

    1. A23
    2. B46
    3. C55
    4. D92
    5. E110
  13. 131 mark

    A model-maker has a strip 2 3/4 m long. She sets aside 1/2 m, then cuts all the rest into 6 equal lengths.

    How long is each cut length?

    1. A1/12 m
    2. B1/4 m
    3. C1/3 m
    4. D3/8 m
    5. E2 1/4 m
  14. 141 mark

    On an orienteering grid, M at (1, -2) is exactly halfway between checkpoint A at (-5, 4) and checkpoint B.

    What are the coordinates of checkpoint B?

    1. A(-7, 8)
    2. B(-2, 1)
    3. C(7, -8)
    4. D(7, 0)
    5. E(3, -6)
  15. 151 mark

    A model greenhouse is built to a scale of 1 : 25. Its model length is 18 cm. The full-size design is then shortened by 50 cm.

    What is the new full-size length?

    1. A0.4 m
    2. B4 m
    3. C4.5 m
    4. D12.5 m
    5. E450 m
  16. 161 mark

    A garden centre display begins as a rectangle 12 m long and 9 m wide. A 4 m by 3 m rectangle is removed from one corner, making an L-shape.

    What is the perimeter of the L-shaped display?

    1. A36 m
    2. B42 m
    3. C48 m
    4. D54 m
    5. E108 m
  17. 171 mark

    Five consecutive even harvest label numbers have a total of 370.

    What is the largest of the five numbers?

    1. A70
    2. B72
    3. C74
    4. D78
    5. E80
  18. 181 mark

    A model-maker records a thickness of 0.506 mm, then reduces it by 0.09 mm.

    What thickness should be recorded now?

    1. A0.416 mm
    2. B0.496 mm
    3. C0.506 mm
    4. D0.515 mm
    5. E0.596 mm
  19. 191 mark

    A pool dosing container is 3/4 full. Solution equal to 0.18 of its full capacity is added, then solution equal to 12% of its full capacity is used.

    What decimal fraction of the container is full now?

    1. A0.06
    2. B0.45
    3. C0.69
    4. D0.75
    5. E0.81
  20. 201 mark

    One interior angle of a rhombus is 58 degrees.

    What is the size of the largest interior angle of the rhombus?

    1. A58 degrees
    2. B90 degrees
    3. C122 degrees
    4. D148 degrees
    5. E302 degrees
  21. 211 mark

    A cuboid pool tank measures 80 cm by 50 cm by 30 cm. It is 3/4 full, then 15 litres are drained.

    How many litres remain?

    1. A75 litres
    2. B90 litres
    3. C105 litres
    4. D120 litres
    5. E135 litres
  22. 221 mark

    A garden centre needs 486 care labels and already has 37. New labels come in rolls of 25.

    What is the smallest number of rolls it must open?

    1. A17
    2. B17.96
    3. C18
    4. D20
    5. E449
  23. 231 mark

    Four model-makers complete 18 identical kits in 3 hours. Everyone works at the same steady rate.

    How many kits will 6 model-makers complete in 5 hours?

    1. A27
    2. B45
    3. C54
    4. D90
    5. E135
  24. 241 mark

    The share of garden centre plants carrying a special label rises from 30% to 42%.

    By what percentage of the original share has the labelled share risen?

    1. A4%
    2. B12%
    3. C30%
    4. D40%
    5. E72%
  25. 251 mark

    One harvest team fills 14 crates with 36 apples in each. Another fills 9 crates with 28 apples in each. Seventeen apples from the combined harvest are rejected.

    How many accepted apples are there?

    1. A17
    2. B252
    3. C487
    4. D504
    5. E739
  26. 261 mark

    Four angles meet at a point. Two are right angles. The other two angles are in the ratio 2 : 3.

    What is the larger of the two remaining angles?

    1. A36 degrees
    2. B72 degrees
    3. C90 degrees
    4. D108 degrees
    5. E180 degrees
  27. 271 mark

    A whole number is greater than 300 but less than 350. It is both a square number and a multiple of 6.

    Which number is it?

    1. A306
    2. B312
    3. C318
    4. D320
    5. E324
  28. 281 mark

    A garden centre receives 320 bulbs. Fifteen per cent are damaged. Of the usable bulbs, 3/8 are tulip bulbs.

    How many usable bulbs are not tulip bulbs?

    1. A102
    2. B120
    3. C170
    4. D200
    5. E272
  29. 291 mark

    A garden centre autumn display opens on 27 September and runs for 19 days, counting both its opening day and its final day.

    On what date is its final day?

    1. A14 October
    2. B15 October
    3. C16 October
    4. D19 October
    5. E27 October
  30. 301 mark

    A model-maker has some tiny rivets. Packing them in groups of 7 leaves 4 rivets, while packing the same rivets in groups of 5 leaves 2 rivets.

    Which could be the number of rivets?

    1. A67
    2. B72
    3. C74
    4. D77
    5. E84
  31. 311 mark

    A rectangular garden plan is divided into 4 equal horizontal strips. The whole bottom strip is shaded. The top strip is divided into 5 equal parts, of which 3 are shaded. Nothing else is shaded.

    What fraction of the whole rectangle is shaded?

    1. A3/20
    2. B1/4
    3. C2/5
    4. D4/9
    5. E3/5
  32. 321 mark

    A model display uses wooden, metal and glass pieces. Wooden to metal pieces are in the ratio 3 : 5, while metal to glass pieces are in the ratio 10 : 7. There are 42 glass pieces.

    How many wooden pieces are there?

    1. A36
    2. B42
    3. C60
    4. D96
    5. E138
  33. 331 mark

    A pool has 480 wristbands. Thirty-five per cent are reserved for lesson groups. Of the reserved wristbands, 3/7 are for morning lessons.

    How many wristbands are not reserved for morning lessons?

    1. A35
    2. B72
    3. C168
    4. D312
    5. E408
  34. 341 mark

    The question mark is a missing digit in this subtraction: 8?4 - 267 = 557.

    Which digit replaces the question mark?

    1. A1
    2. B2
    3. C3
    4. D4
    5. E5
  35. 351 mark

    A regular model-making tile has perimeter 96 cm and side length 12 cm. A person walks around its edge, turning the same exterior angle at every corner.

    Through what angle does the person turn at each corner?

    1. A8 degrees
    2. B12 degrees
    3. C30 degrees
    4. D45 degrees
    5. E135 degrees
  36. 361 mark

    In the harvest number 364 218, the digit 6 has one value. In the measurement 2.064, the digit 6 has another value.

    How many times as great is the first value as the second?

    1. A100
    2. B1000
    3. C10 000
    4. D100 000
    5. E1 000 000
  37. 371 mark

    An orienteer moves at a steady average speed of 4.8 km per hour for 1 hour 45 minutes.

    How far does the orienteer travel?

    1. A4.8 km
    2. B8.4 km
    3. C9.6 km
    4. D84 km
    5. E216 km
  38. 381 mark

    A model-making counter starts at 3. It repeats this pair of instructions three times: add 7, then double.

    What number is shown after the third complete pair?

    1. A48
    2. B73
    3. C80
    4. D122
    5. E258
  39. 391 mark

    A garden plant grows by 20% of its original height. It is then trimmed by 15% of its new height and measures 51 cm.

    What was its original height?

    1. A36 cm
    2. B43.35 cm
    3. C50 cm
    4. D51 cm
    5. E61.2 cm
  40. 401 mark

    Eight garden centre trays have a mean of 6 damaged plants per tray. Another 12 trays have a mean of 4 damaged plants per tray.

    What is the mean number of damaged plants across all 20 trays?

    1. A4.8
    2. B5
    3. C10
    4. D20
    5. E96
  41. 411 mark

    At a garden centre, healthy and damaged seedlings are in the ratio 11 : 3. There are 64 more healthy seedlings than damaged seedlings.

    How many healthy seedlings are there?

    1. A24
    2. B88
    3. C112
    4. D192
    5. E704
  42. 421 mark

    A harvest fills 15 trays with 48 pears in each tray. Exactly 1/8 of all the pears are bruised. The good pears are packed equally into bags of 9.

    How many bags are filled?

    1. A8
    2. B10
    3. C63
    4. D70
    5. E80
  43. 431 mark

    Five identical cubes, each with edge length 2 cm, are joined face-to-face in a straight row to make one cuboid.

    What is the surface area of the cuboid?

    1. A10 square centimetres
    2. B40 square centimetres
    3. C56 square centimetres
    4. D80 square centimetres
    5. E88 square centimetres
  44. 441 mark

    By how much is 62.5% greater than 7/12? Give the answer as a fraction in its simplest form.

    1. A1/24
    2. B1/20
    3. C1/12
    4. D1/6
    5. E5/8
  45. 451 mark

    A garden centre can arrange its pots in complete rows of 6, 8 or 9. It has more than 200 pots.

    What is the smallest possible number of pots?

    1. A198
    2. B208
    3. C216
    4. D224
    5. E432
  46. 461 mark

    A box containing 12 equal model-making kits has a total mass of 4.05 kg. The empty box has a mass of 450 g.

    What is the mass of each kit?

    1. A300 g
    2. B337.5 g
    3. C450 g
    4. D3600 g
    5. E4050 g
  47. 471 mark

    On an orienteering grid, checkpoints A and B are at (-6, 3) and (4, 3). Checkpoint C is 5 squares directly below the midpoint of AB.

    What are the coordinates of C?

    1. A(-5, -2)
    2. B(-1, 2)
    3. C(-1, -2)
    4. D(1, -2)
    5. E(5, 8)
  48. 481 mark

    A harvest plan allowed 307 g of fruit for each of 84 trays, but only 297 g was placed on each tray.

    How many grams short of the plan was the whole harvest?

    1. A10 g
    2. B84 g
    3. C168 g
    4. D297 g
    5. E840 g
  49. 491 mark

    A circular chart represents 90 harvested crates. Its smallest sector represents 18 crates.

    What is the angle of this sector?

    1. A18 degrees
    2. B20 degrees
    3. C42 degrees
    4. D72 degrees
    5. E288 degrees
  50. 501 mark

    Five orienteering completion times are 32, 35, 35, 41 and 47 minutes. One more time is added, and the median of all six times becomes 37 minutes.

    What is the added time?

    1. A35 minutes
    2. B39 minutes
    3. C41 minutes
    4. D74 minutes
    5. E190 minutes
Answers, mark scheme and worked explanations
  1. 11 mark

    C

    Elimination shortcut: the known digits add to 5 + 7 + 2 = 14. A multiple of 9 needs a digit sum that is a multiple of 9, so only 4 makes the sum 18. The number is 5472, which does round down to 5000.

    A and B produce digit sums of 14 and 16, so neither number is divisible by 9. D and E produce numbers at least 5500, so they round to 6000; they also miss the divisibility test.

  2. 21 mark

    E

    Elimination shortcut: the bracket is 12, so 144 divided by 12 is 12. The multiplication contributes 72, and adding 18 gives 90.

    A stops after 18 + 12. B omits the opening 18. C works from left to right, using (18 + 144) divided by 12 x 6. D ignores the brackets and uses 18 + 144 divided by 5 + 7 x 6.

  3. 31 mark

    B

    Elimination shortcut: 5/8 remains after the morning, and the afternoon leaves 3/5 of that remainder. So 3/5 x 5/8 = 3/8 is left. You do not need to find the afternoon sale separately.

    A multiplies the two fractions sold. C copies the afternoon fraction as though it referred to the original harvest. D adds 3/8 and 2/5 as though both were original-harvest fractions. E stops after the morning.

  4. 41 mark

    D

    Elimination shortcut: the answer must be a little over 2 litres, so A, B and E have impossible sizes. Convert 4.5 litres to 4500 ml and 1.275 litres to 1275 ml. Then 4500 - 850 - 1275 = 2375 ml.

    A has the right numerical amount in litres but labels it as millilitres. B copies the first amount used. C is the total used, not the remainder. E adds the used solution to the starting amount.

  5. 51 mark

    A

    Elimination shortcut: an exterior angle equals the two opposite interior angles together. Those two base angles are equal, so each is 124 divided by 2 = 62 degrees.

    B subtracts the top interior angle, 56 degrees, from 124 instead of halving the exterior angle. C assumes a right angle. D is 180 - 62 and confuses a supplementary angle with a base angle. E copies the exterior angle.

  6. 61 mark

    D

    Elimination shortcut: white exceeds yellow by 7 - 5 = 2 ratio parts. Those 2 parts are the 18 pots sold, so one part is 9. The original total is 15 parts, or 15 x 9 = 135 pots.

    A is only the number sold. B and C are the original yellow and white groups. E adds the 18 sold pots to 135 even though 135 is already the original total.

  7. 71 mark

    B

    Elimination shortcut: a missing value in a group with mean 24 should be near 24, so only 26 has a sensible size. Fully, the required total is 6 x 24 = 144 kg. The five known loads total 118 kg, leaving 144 - 118 = 26 kg.

    A copies the number of loads. C is the known total, and D is the required total before the missing value is found. E adds 118 and 144 instead of finding their difference.

  8. 81 mark

    E

    Elimination shortcut: 340 is 85% of the original. Since 5% must be a whole twentieth, divide 340 by 17 to get 5% = 20 pears. Therefore 100% = 20 x 20 = 400 pears.

    A is 15% of 340. B takes 15% off 340 again. C treats the remaining amount as the original. D adds 15% of 340 rather than restoring 15% of the unknown original.

  9. 91 mark

    A

    Elimination shortcut: a number is divisible by 4 when its last two digits form a multiple of 4. Start with the smallest allowed thousands digit, 3, then the smallest hundreds digit, 1. The ending 48 works, giving 3148.

    B is divisible by 4 but is larger because its tens digit is 8. C has the smaller available hundreds arrangement after a different choice, but 18 is not divisible by 4. D abandons the smallest possible thousands digit. E puts the digits in descending order and is odd.

  10. 101 mark

    C

    Elimination shortcut: two matching triangular ends joined by three rectangular faces describe a triangular prism. It also has 6 vertices and 9 edges, so every clue agrees.

    A has 6 rectangular faces and 8 vertices. B has 5 vertices and only one square base. D has 4 triangular faces, 4 vertices and 6 edges. E has curved surfaces and no vertices.

  11. 111 mark

    E

    Elimination shortcut: the run lasts more than an hour because it passes 23:47, but less than two hours. From 22:47 to midnight is 73 minutes, then another 18 minutes gives 91 minutes.

    A counts only the time after midnight. B subtracts the displayed minute numbers. C counts from 23:47 and loses the first hour. D treats an hour as 100 minutes, using 100 - 47 + 18.

  12. 121 mark

    A

    Undo the operations in reverse: 220 divided by 2 is 110, then 110 - 18 = 92, and 92 divided by 4 = 23.

    B divides by 2 instead of undoing the multiplication by 4. C divides the final result by 4 and ignores the addition and final doubling. D stops before the last reverse step. E stops after undoing only the final doubling.

  13. 131 mark

    D

    Elimination shortcut: after setting aside half a metre, a little over 2 m remains, so six pieces must each be a little over 1/3 m. Calculate 2 3/4 - 1/2 = 2 1/4 = 9/4. Then 9/4 divided by 6 = 9/24 = 3/8 m.

    A divides the set-aside 1/2 m by 6. B ignores the 3/4 m before dividing. C divides only the 2 whole metres by 6. E is the remaining length before it is divided.

  14. 141 mark

    C

    Elimination shortcut: A to M moves 6 squares right and 6 squares down. The same move again reaches B, so B is at (1 + 6, -2 - 6) = (7, -8).

    A reverses both directions. B swaps the coordinates of M. D makes the horizontal move but loses the vertical change. E uses only part of each displacement instead of repeating the complete A-to-M move.

  15. 151 mark

    B

    Elimination shortcut: 18 cm x 25 = 450 cm, or 4.5 m. Shortening this by 50 cm, which is 0.5 m, gives 4 m.

    A has the right digits after the subtraction but divides by 10 once too many. C is the original full-size length before shortening. D multiplies the 50 cm change by the scale. E converts 450 cm to metres in the wrong direction.

  16. 161 mark

    B

    Elimination shortcut: cutting a rectangle from a corner removes 4 m and 3 m from the outside but adds new inside edges of the same two lengths. The perimeter stays 2 x (12 + 9) = 42 m.

    A subtracts the removed lengths once from the original perimeter. C adds the removed 3 m twice. D adds both 4 m and 3 m to the original perimeter. E gives the original area, 12 x 9, but labels it as a length.

  17. 171 mark

    D

    Elimination shortcut: the middle of five equally spaced numbers is their mean. Since 370 divided by 5 = 74, the numbers are 70, 72, 74, 76 and 78. The largest is 78.

    A is the smallest, B is the second number and C is the middle number. E treats consecutive even numbers as though the gap were 3, reaching 80 instead of 78.

  18. 181 mark

    A

    Elimination shortcut: subtracting almost one tenth from just over 0.5 must give just over 0.4. Write 0.09 as 0.090, then 0.506 - 0.090 = 0.416 mm.

    B subtracts 0.01. C makes no change. D adds 0.009 after misaligning the decimal places. E adds 0.09 instead of subtracting it.

  19. 191 mark

    E

    Elimination shortcut: the amount added exceeds the amount used by 0.06 of the capacity, so the final level must be 0.06 above the starting 0.75. Thus 0.75 + 0.18 - 0.12 = 0.81.

    A gives only the net change. B treats both later amounts as subtractions. C subtracts the added amount and adds the used amount. D assumes the two changes cancel exactly.

  20. 201 mark

    C

    Adjacent angles in a rhombus total 180 degrees, so each angle beside the 58 degree angle is 180 - 58 = 122 degrees. Opposite angles are equal, making 122 degrees the largest.

    A copies the smaller angle. B assumes every rhombus has right angles. D adds 58 to 90. E finds the reflex angle 360 - 58 rather than an interior angle of the rhombus.

  21. 211 mark

    A

    Elimination shortcut: the full volume is 80 x 50 x 30 = 120 000 cubic centimetres, or 120 litres. Three quarters is 90 litres, and 90 - 15 = 75 litres remain.

    B is the amount before draining. C adds the 15 litres. D is the full capacity. E adds the drained amount to the full capacity.

  22. 221 mark

    C

    Elimination shortcut: 486 - 37 = 449 labels are needed. Seventeen rolls give only 425 labels, while 18 rolls give 450, so 18 is the smallest sufficient number.

    A rounds down and leaves 24 labels missing. B is 449 divided by 25 but a fraction of a roll cannot be opened. D ignores the 37 labels already held and rounds 486 divided by 25 up. E is the number of labels needed, not rolls.

  23. 231 mark

    B

    Elimination shortcut: the first group provides 4 x 3 = 12 worker-hours, so the rate is 18 divided by 12 = 1.5 kits per worker-hour. The second group provides 6 x 5 = 30 worker-hours, making 30 x 1.5 = 45 kits.

    A changes only the number of workers. C multiplies the original 18 by the original 3 hours. D multiplies by the new 5 hours without allowing for the original time. E changes both numbers by multiplying but never divides by the original 4 workers and 3 hours.

  24. 241 mark

    D

    Elimination shortcut: the rise is 12 percentage points, but the question compares that rise with the original 30%. Since 12 divided by 30 = 0.4, the share has risen by 40% of its original size.

    A loses a zero when converting 0.4 to a percentage. B gives the percentage-point increase. C copies the original share. E adds 30 and 42 instead of comparing their difference with 30.

  25. 251 mark

    E

    Elimination shortcut: both team totals are even, and subtracting 17 makes the answer odd. It must also exceed 700, so only 739 fits. Fully, 14 x 36 = 504, 9 x 28 = 252, and 504 + 252 - 17 = 739.

    A copies the rejected number. B is only the second team's total. C subtracts the rejected apples from the first team only and omits the second team. D is only the first team's total.

  26. 261 mark

    D

    Angles at a point total 360 degrees. The two right angles use 180 degrees, leaving 180 degrees in 2 + 3 = 5 parts. One part is 36 degrees, so the larger angle is 3 x 36 = 108 degrees.

    A is one ratio part. B is the smaller angle. C assumes the remaining angles are equal. E is the combined total of the two remaining angles.

  27. 271 mark

    E

    Elimination shortcut: 18 squared is 324, and 324 is even with digit sum 9, so it is divisible by both 2 and 3 and therefore by 6. The neighbouring squares are 17 squared = 289 and 19 squared = 361, outside the range.

    A, B and C are multiples of 6 but are not square numbers. D is neither divisible by 3 nor a square number; it is included for checking only the final zero.

  28. 281 mark

    C

    Elimination shortcut: 15% of 320 is 48, leaving 272 usable bulbs. The non-tulip share is 5/8, a little over half of 272, so 170 is the only sensible option. Indeed, 272 divided by 8 x 5 = 170.

    A is the 3/8 tulip share of the usable bulbs. B takes 3/8 of all 320 bulbs. D takes 5/8 of all bulbs and ignores the damage. E stops after finding the usable total.

  29. 291 mark

    B

    Elimination shortcut: 27, 28, 29 and 30 September are the first 4 days. That leaves 15 more days, so the nineteenth and final day is 15 October.

    A counts only 18 days because it excludes one endpoint. C counts 20 days by adding 19 after the opening date. D transfers the duration directly to an October date. E keeps the day number and merely changes the month.

  30. 301 mark

    A

    Test the two remainders. Since 63 is a multiple of 7, 67 leaves 4. Since 65 is a multiple of 5, 67 leaves 2, so 67 meets both conditions.

    B leaves 2 after division by both 7 and 5. C leaves 4 after division by 7 but 4 after division by 5. D leaves 0 after division by 7. E leaves 0 after division by 7 and 4 after division by 5.

  31. 311 mark

    C

    The bottom strip is 1/4 = 5/20 of the rectangle. Each of the five parts in the top strip is 1/20 of the rectangle, so its three shaded parts make 3/20. Altogether, 5/20 + 3/20 = 8/20 = 2/5.

    A counts only the shaded pieces in the top strip. B counts only the bottom strip. D adds shaded numerators and denominators, using (3 + 1)/(5 + 4). E describes the shaded fraction of the top strip alone.

  32. 321 mark

    A

    In the metal to glass ratio, 7 parts are 42, so metal is 10 x 6 = 60. In the wooden to metal ratio, 5 parts are 60, so wooden is 3 x 12 = 36.

    B copies the glass count. C is the metal count. D adds wooden and metal pieces. E is the total number of all three materials.

  33. 331 mark

    E

    Thirty-five per cent of 480 is 168 reserved wristbands. Morning lessons use 3/7 of 168, which is 72. Therefore 480 - 72 = 408 wristbands are not reserved for morning lessons.

    A copies the percentage. B is the number reserved for morning lessons. C is the total reserved for all lessons. D is the number not reserved for any lesson, so it wrongly excludes wristbands reserved for later lessons.

  34. 341 mark

    B

    In the units column, exchange one ten so 14 - 7 = 7. In the tens column, the reduced missing digit must exchange one hundred before subtracting 6. With a missing digit of 2, this gives 11 - 6 = 5, and the hundreds check is 7 - 2 = 5.

    A forgets that the borrowed ten reduces the missing digit. C forgets the first borrow but allows for the second. D copies the units digit of the top number. E copies a digit from the answer instead of completing the exchanges.

  35. 351 mark

    D

    The tile has 96 divided by 12 = 8 sides. Exterior turns around any polygon total 360 degrees, so each equal turn is 360 divided by 8 = 45 degrees.

    A is the number of sides. B copies the side length. C divides 360 by 12 instead of by 8. E is the interior angle, 180 - 45, rather than the exterior turn.

  36. 361 mark

    E

    Elimination shortcut: the first 6 is worth 60 000 and the second is worth 0.06. From hundredths to ten-thousands is six place-value moves, so the value is multiplied by 10 six times: 1 000 000 times.

    A, B, C and D count only two, three, four or five of the six place-value moves. Each misses one or more factors of 10.

  37. 371 mark

    B

    Elimination shortcut: the time is less than 2 hours, so the distance must be less than 9.6 km but greater than 4.8 km. Forty-five minutes is 3/4 hour, and 3/4 of 4.8 km is 3.6 km. The total is 4.8 + 3.6 = 8.4 km.

    A counts only the first hour. C rounds the time up to 2 hours. D removes the decimal point from the correct distance. E multiplies the hourly distance by 45 as though 45 minutes meant 45 hours.

  38. 381 mark

    D

    Follow each complete pair: 3 becomes 20, then 20 becomes 54, then 54 becomes 122. The displayed number is 122.

    A adds 7 three times and doubles only once. B reverses every pair, doubling before adding. C adds 7 once and then doubles three times. E carries out a fourth pair after reaching 122.

  39. 391 mark

    C

    After growing, the height is 120% of the original. Keeping 85% after trimming gives 85% of 120%, which is 102% of the original. Therefore 51 cm is 102%, so 1% is 0.5 cm and 100% is 50 cm.

    A treats 15% as 15 cm and subtracts it from 51. B takes 15% off the final height again. D assumes the two changes cancel. E adds 20% to the final height instead of reversing both changes.

  40. 401 mark

    A

    The first 8 trays contain 8 x 6 = 48 damaged plants and the next 12 contain 12 x 4 = 48. That is 96 across 20 trays, so the mean is 96 divided by 20 = 4.8.

    B takes the simple mean of 6 and 4, ignoring that the groups have different sizes. C adds the two means. D gives the tray count. E is the total number of damaged plants before division.

  41. 411 mark

    B

    The difference 11 - 3 = 8 ratio parts represents 64 seedlings, so one part is 8. The healthy group is 11 x 8 = 88 seedlings.

    A is the damaged group. C is the total group. D multiplies the 3 damaged parts by the difference of 64. E multiplies 11 by 64 without first finding one part.

  42. 421 mark

    D

    Before bruised pears are removed, 15 x 48 divided by 9 = 80 bags could be filled. Since 1/8 are bruised, 7/8 are good, so the number of bags is 7/8 of 80 = 70.

    A copies the denominator of the bruised fraction. B is the number of bags the 90 bruised pears would fill. C divides the 630 good pears by 10 instead of 9. E ignores the bruised pears.

  43. 431 mark

    E

    The joined cuboid measures 10 cm by 2 cm by 2 cm. Its surface area is two 10 x 2 faces in each of two directions, plus two 2 x 2 ends: 40 + 40 + 8 = 88 square centimetres.

    A gives the row length but labels it as area. B gives the volume, 10 x 2 x 2. C is the surface area of a row only 6 cm long, so it forgets two cubes. D counts the four long faces but omits both end faces.

  44. 441 mark

    A

    Convert 62.5% to 5/8. In twenty-fourths, 5/8 = 15/24 and 7/12 = 14/24, so the difference is 1/24.

    B uses 8 + 12 = 20 as a denominator. C finds the correct numerator gap but uses 12 instead of the common denominator 24. D doubles that denominator error. E gives 62.5% as a fraction but does not subtract 7/12.

  45. 451 mark

    C

    The lowest common multiple of 6, 8 and 9 is 72. The multiples around 200 are 144, 216 and 288, so the smallest one above 200 is 216.

    A is divisible by 6 and 9 but not 8. B and D are divisible by 8 but not by both 6 and 9. E is a common multiple but is not the smallest one above 200.

  46. 461 mark

    A

    Convert 4.05 kg to 4050 g. The kits together weigh 4050 - 450 = 3600 g, and 3600 divided by 12 = 300 g per kit.

    B divides the total mass by 12 without removing the box. C copies the box mass. D is the combined kit mass before sharing. E is the total mass of box and kits in grams.

  47. 471 mark

    C

    The midpoint of -6 and 4 is -1, while the shared y-coordinate stays 3. Moving 5 squares down changes the y-coordinate to 3 - 5 = -2, so C is (-1, -2).

    A halves the horizontal distance of 10 but uses it as the x-coordinate. B subtracts only 1 vertically. D loses the negative sign on the midpoint. E adds 5 to both midpoint coordinates instead of moving only down.

  48. 481 mark

    E

    Each tray is 307 - 297 = 10 g short. Across 84 trays, the shortfall is 84 x 10 = 840 g. There is no need to calculate either large total.

    A is the shortfall on one tray. B is one gram per tray. C assumes a 2 g shortfall per tray. D copies the actual mass on one tray.

  49. 491 mark

    D

    The sector represents 18/90 = 1/5 of the crates. One fifth of the 360 degrees in a full circle is 72 degrees.

    A copies the crate count as an angle. B gives the percentage, 20%, but labels it in degrees. C copies the number of crates outside a different comparison. E gives the angle of the other four fifths of the chart.

  50. 501 mark

    B

    With six values, the median is the mean of the third and fourth values. The added time must sit between 35 and 41, making the middle pair 35 and the new value. Their total must be 2 x 37 = 74, so the new value is 74 - 35 = 39 minutes.

    A would make the median 35. C would leave the middle pair as 35 and 41, giving 38. D is the required total of the middle pair, not the added value. E is the total of the original five times.

Sutton Selective Eligibility Test, Stage 1, Mathematics (multiple choice). Written by Revision Library on 2026-08-29, independent check pending.

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