Using Resources - Worksheets, Questions and Revision

20 original exam-style questions - 10 pages of questions with a full mark scheme - free printable PDF.

Download PDF Jump to mark scheme (page 11)Read the revision guide

Next in this strand

Revision Library

revisionlibrary.co.uk

GCSE · Chemistry

C10 Using Resources

AQA 8461/8462/8463 · Calculator allowed · about 100 minutes

Total Marks

Name: _______________________________ Date: ____ / ____ / ______

Answer ALL questions. Show all your working.

Tap water in the UK is described as potable water.

(a)State what is meant by the term 'potable water'.(1)

(b)Explain why potable water is not the same as pure water.(2)

(Total for Question 1 is 3 marks)

Most of the UK's potable water is produced from fresh water taken from rivers and reservoirs.

(a)Describe the three main stages used to treat fresh water so that it becomes potable.(3)

(b)Give one reason why fresh water usually needs less treatment than sea water to become potable.(1)

(Total for Question 2 is 4 marks)

In some countries with limited fresh water, potable water is produced from sea water by desalination.

(a)Name two methods used to desalinate sea water.(2)

(b)Compare distillation and reverse osmosis as methods of desalination, in terms of the energy they require.(2)

(Total for Question 3 is 4 marks)

Required practical: a student, Priya, is investigating the purity of three water samples (tap water, water from a local pond, and water collected as rain) as part of the AQA required practical on the analysis and purification of water samples.

Figure (to be drawn): Simple labelled distillation set-up (no image asset, described in the stem): flask of water heated over a Bunsen burner, thermometer positioned at the side arm, condenser cooled by running water, and a collecting beaker for the distillate.

(a)Explain why the pond water is unlikely to be potable, even though it looks clear.(2)

(b)Describe how Priya could measure the mass of dissolved solids in a sample of the pond water by evaporation.(3)

(c)Priya evaporates 100 cm3 of the pond water and finds that the mass of the dry residue left behind is 0.45 g. Calculate the concentration of dissolved solids in the pond water, in g/dm3.(3)

(d)Priya wants to check how pure her distilled sample of pond water is. Describe how she could use distillation and a thermometer to test this, and explain what result would show the sample is pure water.(3)

(e)Evaluate the evaporation method used in part (b) to measure dissolved solids, suggesting one improvement to make the result more reliable.(2)

(f)Give one advantage and one disadvantage of using reverse osmosis, rather than distillation, to produce potable water on a large scale.(2)

(Total for Question 4 is 15 marks)

Waste water from homes and industry must be treated before it is safely released back into rivers.

(a)Describe the stages used to treat waste water, from screening to the treatment of sludge and effluent.(4)

(Total for Question 5 is 4 marks)

Manufacturers use life cycle assessments (LCAs) to compare the environmental impact of products.

(a)State what a life cycle assessment is used for.(1)

(b)List the four main stages of a life cycle assessment.(3)

(Total for Question 6 is 4 marks)

A supermarket is deciding whether to switch from single-use plastic carrier bags to paper carrier bags. Simplified life cycle assessment data for the two types of bag are given below.

Plastic bag: raw material is crude oil; low energy to manufacture; very light and compact to transport; not biodegradable, but can be recycled; often reused as bin liners before disposal.
Paper bag: raw material is wood pulp from trees; higher energy and water use to manufacture; bulkier and heavier to transport; biodegradable and can be recycled, but is rarely reused before disposal.

Evaluate whether switching from plastic to paper carrier bags would reduce the supermarket's overall environmental impact. In your answer, you should refer to: raw materials, energy and water use in manufacture, transport, and disposal/end of life.

(Total for Question 7 is 6 marks)

Recycling reduces the amount of raw material and energy needed to make new products.

(a)Describe how scrap metal, such as aluminium cans, is recycled.(2)

(b)Give one reason why recycling glass bottles uses less energy than manufacturing new glass from raw materials.(1)

(Total for Question 8 is 3 marks)

Iron and steel structures, such as bridges and railings, can corrode over time.

(a)State the two substances that must both be present for iron to rust.(2)

(b)Write a word equation for the rusting of iron.(2)

(Total for Question 9 is 4 marks)

Blocks of zinc are sometimes bolted onto the steel hulls of ships below the waterline.

(a)Explain how the zinc blocks protect the steel hull from rusting. Refer to the reactivity of zinc and iron in your answer.(3)

(Total for Question 10 is 3 marks)

Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin, and is much harder than pure copper.

Figure (to be drawn): Simple particle diagram (no image asset, described in the stem): regular rows of identical circles for pure copper, compared with rows of copper circles disrupted by a few larger tin circles for bronze.

(a)State what is meant by the term 'alloy'.(2)

(b)Explain, in terms of particle arrangement, why bronze is harder than pure copper.(2)

(Total for Question 11 is 4 marks)

A jeweller makes a bronze ornament with a total mass of 50 g, containing 44 g of copper and 6 g of tin.

(a)Calculate the percentage of copper and the percentage of tin in this sample of bronze.(4)

(Total for Question 12 is 4 marks)

Different materials are chosen for different products depending on their properties.

(a)Identify one material from each pair that is more suitable for the job described, and give a reason for each choice: (i) a soup bowl - glass ceramic or borosilicate glass, (ii) a plastic drinks bottle - a thermosoftening or a thermosetting polymer, (iii) a bicycle frame - a carbon-fibre composite or a pure metal, (iv) an electrical wall socket - a thermosetting polymer or a thermosoftening polymer.(4)

(Total for Question 13 is 4 marks)

Ammonia is manufactured industrially by the Haber process, using nitrogen and hydrogen gas.

(a)Write the balanced symbol equation for the reaction between nitrogen and hydrogen to produce ammonia, including state symbols and the reversible reaction sign.(2)

(b)State the conditions (temperature, pressure and catalyst) used in the Haber process.(3)

(Total for Question 14 is 5 marks)

The forward reaction in the Haber process is exothermic, and the reaction reaches a dynamic equilibrium. Lower temperatures and higher pressures both increase the equilibrium yield of ammonia, yet the industrial conditions used (about 450C and 200 atmospheres) are a compromise rather than the conditions that would give the maximum possible yield. Explain why these compromise conditions are used, referring to reaction rate, equilibrium yield, and cost/safety.

(Total for Question 15 is 6 marks)

In a Haber process reactor, 56 g of nitrogen gas reacts completely with an excess of hydrogen gas.

(a)Calculate the maximum theoretical mass of ammonia that could be produced, assuming the reaction goes to completion. (Relative atomic masses: N = 14, H = 1)(3)

(b)In practice, only 51 g of ammonia is actually collected. Calculate the percentage yield of this reaction.(2)

(Total for Question 16 is 5 marks)

Ammonia produced by the Haber process is used to manufacture ammonium nitrate fertiliser.

(a)Write the word equation for the reaction between ammonia and nitric acid to form ammonium nitrate.(1)

(b)State the type of reaction taking place between ammonia and nitric acid.(1)

(c)Give one reason why ammonium nitrate is a particularly useful compound to use as a fertiliser.(1)

(Total for Question 17 is 3 marks)

Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3, is a common nitrogen-based fertiliser. (Relative atomic masses: N = 14, H = 1, O = 16)

(a)Calculate the relative formula mass, Mr, of ammonium nitrate.(2)

(b)Calculate the percentage by mass of nitrogen in ammonium nitrate.(2)

(Total for Question 18 is 4 marks)

NPK fertilisers supply nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium to crops. A fertiliser manufacturer can add potassium to a fertiliser mixture as either potassium chloride or potassium sulfate. Potassium chloride is cheaper to produce and has a higher percentage of potassium by mass, but some crops (such as tobacco and certain fruits) grow poorly if too much chloride is present in the soil, whereas potassium sulfate contains sulfur, which is itself a useful plant nutrient, but is more expensive to produce and has a lower percentage of potassium by mass. Evaluate which potassium compound, potassium chloride or potassium sulfate, would be the better choice for a general-purpose NPK fertiliser sold to a wide range of arable farmers.

(Total for Question 19 is 6 marks)

In the Haber process, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ≤> 2NH3(g) is at dynamic equilibrium, and the forward reaction is exothermic.

(a)Using the idea of equilibrium and the number of moles of gas on each side of the equation, explain why increasing the pressure increases the equilibrium yield of ammonia.(4)

(Total for Question 20 is 4 marks)

Mark scheme · C10 Using Resources

Question 1

(a) B1 water that is safe (enough) for humans to drink (oe; accept low enough levels of dissolved salts/microbes/other substances)
(a) Answer: Potable water is water that is safe for humans to drink.
(b) B1 pure water contains only H2O molecules with nothing dissolved in it (oe)
(b) B1 potable water contains low, safe levels of dissolved substances such as mineral ions/salts, whereas pure water by definition has none (oe)
(b) Answer: Pure water is H2O with nothing else dissolved in it, whereas potable water still contains low, safe levels of dissolved substances such as mineral salts; it is safe to drink but not chemically pure.

Question 2

(a) B1 the water passes through a wire mesh screen to remove large solid debris (oe)
(a) B1 sedimentation and filtration are used to remove any remaining insoluble solids/fine particles (oe)
(a) B1 the water is sterilised, e.g. with chlorine, ozone or UV light, to kill microorganisms (oe, any named method)
(a) Answer: Screening removes large debris; sedimentation and filtration remove remaining insoluble solids; the water is then sterilised (for example with chlorine, ozone or UV light) to kill microorganisms.
(b) B1 fresh water already has a low concentration of dissolved salts, so it does not need desalinating (oe)
(b) Answer: Fresh water already has a low salt content, so unlike sea water it does not need to be desalinated.

Question 3

(a) B1 distillation
(a) B1 reverse osmosis (using membranes)
(a) Answer: Distillation and reverse osmosis.
(b) B1 distillation requires large amounts of energy to evaporate/boil the water (oe)
(b) B1 reverse osmosis requires energy to force water through the membrane at high pressure, but this is usually less than the energy needed for distillation (oe)
(b) Answer: Distillation needs a large amount of energy to boil the water so it can be condensed as pure water; reverse osmosis needs energy to pump water through membranes at high pressure, but this is generally less energy than distillation requires.

Question 4

(a) B1 pond water may contain microorganisms/pathogens that are invisible to the eye (oe)
(a) B1 it may also contain dissolved substances (e.g. from run-off) at levels unsafe to drink, even though it appears clear (oe)
(a) Answer: Even if it looks clear, pond water can contain harmful microorganisms and dissolved substances (for example from agricultural or animal run-off) at levels that are unsafe to drink.
(b) B1 weigh a clean, dry evaporating basin, then add a measured volume of the water sample and weigh again (oe)
(b) B1 gently heat the basin (e.g. on a water bath or over a low flame) until all the water has evaporated, leaving a solid residue (oe)
(b) B1 allow the basin to cool, then reweigh it; the mass of dissolved solids is found by subtracting the mass of the basin from the mass of basin plus residue (oe)
(b) Answer: Weigh a dry evaporating basin, add a known volume of the sample and reweigh. Gently heat until all the water has evaporated, leaving a solid residue. Cool and reweigh the basin; the mass of dissolved solids is the mass of basin plus residue minus the mass of the empty basin.
(c) M1 recognises 1 dm3 = 1000 cm3, so a scaling factor of 1000/100 = 10 is needed
(c) M1 0.45 x 10 (method seen, dependent on first mark)
(c) A1 4.5 g/dm3 (accept awrt 4.5 g/dm3) cao
(c) Answer: 4.5 g/dm3
(d) B1 set up distillation apparatus (e.g. flask, thermometer, condenser, collecting vessel) and heat the water sample so that it boils (oe)
(d) B1 record the temperature at which the water boils, once it is steady, using the thermometer (oe)
(d) B1 if the sample is pure water, it should boil at exactly 100C at standard atmospheric pressure; any dissolved substances would raise the boiling point above 100C (oe)
(d) Answer: Set up distillation apparatus and heat the sample until it boils, recording the steady boiling temperature on the thermometer. Pure water boils at exactly 100C at standard atmospheric pressure; a boiling point above 100C would show the sample still contains dissolved substances.
(e) B1 identifies a limitation, e.g. heating too strongly could spit/lose some solid, or some solid could remain stuck to the basin, giving an inaccurate mass (oe)
(e) B1 suggests a suitable improvement, e.g. repeat the test and calculate a mean, or heat gently/use a water bath to avoid spitting (oe)
(e) Answer: Heating too quickly can cause spitting, losing some solid and giving a mass that is too low. Repeating the test to obtain a mean, and heating gently (e.g. using a water bath), would make the result more reliable.
(f) B1 advantage: reverse osmosis generally uses less energy than distillation (oe)
(f) B1 disadvantage: the membranes used in reverse osmosis are expensive and need regular replacement/cleaning (oe; accept other valid advantage/disadvantage pair)
(f) Answer: Advantage: reverse osmosis generally uses less energy than distillation. Disadvantage: the membranes are expensive and need regular replacement or cleaning.

Question 5

(a) B1 screening and grit removal takes out large solid objects and grit (oe)
(a) B1 sedimentation produces sludge (settled solids) and effluent (the remaining liquid) (oe)
(a) B1 the sludge is treated by anaerobic digestion, which can produce biogas (oe)
(a) B1 the effluent is treated by aerobic digestion (using bacteria/microorganisms) before being released (oe)
(a) Answer: Screening and grit removal takes out large solids and grit. Sedimentation then separates the water into sludge and effluent. The sludge is treated by anaerobic digestion (which can produce biogas), and the effluent is treated aerobically by microorganisms before being released.

Question 6

(a) B1 to assess/compare the environmental impact of a product across all stages of its life (oe)
(a) Answer: A life cycle assessment is used to assess the environmental impact of a product across all the stages of its life.
(b) B1 extracting and processing raw materials
(b) B1 manufacturing and packaging the product
(b) B1 use and operation of the product during its lifetime, and its disposal at the end of life (oe; accept as two points across this mark and any spare credit)
(b) Answer: Extracting and processing raw materials; manufacturing and packaging; use and operation during the product's lifetime; disposal at the end of its life.

Question 7

Level 1 (1-2): Simple, isolated comments are made about plastic and/or paper bags, with little or no comparison between the stages of their life cycles. No overall conclusion is reached.
Level 2 (3-4): Some relevant points are compared across the two bags (for example raw materials or manufacturing), but the comparison is not applied consistently across all stages of the life cycle. A conclusion is attempted but only partly supported by the evidence.
Level 3 (5-6): A detailed, logically structured comparison is made across raw materials, manufacture, transport and disposal for both bags, leading to a well-reasoned conclusion about which bag has the lower overall environmental impact, recognising that the answer depends on how the bags are used and disposed of.
Indicative content:
- Plastic bags are made from crude oil, a finite resource, while paper bags are made from wood pulp, a renewable resource if trees are replanted sustainably.
- Paper bag manufacture typically uses more energy and water than plastic bag manufacture, which increases the environmental impact of this stage for paper.
- Paper bags are bulkier and heavier than plastic bags, so transporting the same number of bags uses more fuel and releases more emissions for paper than for plastic.
- Plastic bags are not biodegradable and can persist in the environment or oceans for a very long time if not disposed of properly, whereas paper bags will biodegrade.
- However, plastic bags are often reused (e.g. as bin liners) before disposal, extending their useful life, whereas paper bags are less commonly reused.
- Both types of bag can be recycled, but recycling rates and processes differ, and paper recycling itself uses energy and water.
- Overall, no single life cycle stage makes one bag clearly better than the other; a full comparison across all stages is needed, and the environmental impact strongly depends on how many times each bag is reused and how it is disposed of at the end of its life.

Question 8

(a) B1 the scrap metal is sorted/separated from other waste (oe)
(a) B1 it is then melted down and cast/re-formed into new products (oe)
(a) Answer: Scrap metal is sorted from other waste, then melted down and recast into new products.
(b) B1 recycled glass melts at a lower temperature than the raw materials used to make new glass, so less energy is needed (oe; accept raw materials do not need to be extracted/quarried, saving energy)
(b) Answer: Recycled glass melts at a lower temperature than the raw materials needed to make new glass, so less energy is used.

Question 9

(a) B1 oxygen (from the air)
(a) B1 water
(a) Answer: Oxygen and water must both be present for iron to rust.
(b) M1 iron, water and oxygen identified as reactants
(b) A1 iron + water + oxygen -> hydrated iron oxide (oe; accept 'rust' in place of 'hydrated iron oxide') cao
(b) Answer: iron + water + oxygen -> hydrated iron oxide (rust)

Question 10

(a) B1 zinc is more reactive than iron (states or uses correctly)
(a) B1 zinc reacts with oxygen/water in preference to the iron, so it corrodes instead of the steel (oe)
(a) B1 this is called sacrificial protection, because the zinc is 'sacrificed' and must be replaced once it has corroded away (oe)
(a) Answer: Zinc is more reactive than iron, so it reacts with oxygen and water in preference to the iron and corrodes instead of the steel hull. This is called sacrificial protection; the zinc block is gradually used up and must be replaced.

Question 11

(a) B1 a mixture (usually) of two or more metals, or a metal and another element (oe)
(a) B1 made by melting the metals together and then allowing them to cool/solidify (oe)
(a) Answer: An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals (or a metal and another element), made by melting them together and allowing the mixture to cool and solidify.
(b) B1 in pure copper, atoms are arranged in regular layers of the same size, which can slide over each other easily (oe)
(b) B1 the tin atoms in bronze are a different size to the copper atoms, which distorts the layers and makes it harder for them to slide over each other (oe)
(b) Answer: In pure copper, all the atoms are the same size and arranged in regular layers that can slide over each other easily. The tin atoms added in bronze are a different size, which distorts the layers, making it harder for them to slide, so bronze is harder than pure copper.

Question 12

(a) M1 percentage copper = (44 / 50) x 100 (method seen)
(a) A1 88% copper cao
(a) M1 percentage tin = (6 / 50) x 100 (method seen; ft their total mass if consistent)
(a) A1 12% tin cao
(a) Answer: 88% copper, 12% tin

Question 13

(a) B1 (i) borosilicate glass, because it can withstand large temperature changes without cracking (oe)
(a) B1 (ii) a thermosoftening polymer, because it can be melted and remoulded/recycled easily (oe)
(a) B1 (iii) a carbon-fibre composite, because it is strong but much less dense/lighter than most pure metals (oe)
(a) B1 (iv) a thermosetting polymer, because it does not melt/soften when heated, so it is safer near an electrical current (oe)
(a) Answer: (i) Borosilicate glass, as it resists thermal shock; (ii) a thermosoftening polymer, as it can be melted and remoulded/recycled; (iii) a carbon-fibre composite, as it is strong but much lighter than metal; (iv) a thermosetting polymer, as it does not melt when heated, making it safer around electricity.

Question 14

(a) M1 correct formulae N2, H2 and NH3 used, with a reversible arrow
(a) A1 N2(g) + 3H2(g) ≤> 2NH3(g), fully balanced with correct state symbols cao
(a) Answer: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ≤> 2NH3(g)
(b) B1 temperature of about 450C
(b) B1 pressure of about 200 atmospheres
(b) B1 iron catalyst
(b) Answer: A temperature of about 450C, a pressure of about 200 atmospheres, and an iron catalyst.

Question 15

Level 1 (1-2): Isolated statements are made about temperature and/or pressure, with little or no reference to the trade-off between rate, yield and cost/safety. No clear conclusion is reached.
Level 2 (3-4): The effect of either temperature or pressure on rate and yield is explained reasonably well, with some reference to cost or safety, but the answer does not fully link both variables to the idea of a compromise.
Level 3 (5-6): A detailed, logically structured explanation covers both temperature and pressure, correctly linking their effects on reaction rate, equilibrium yield, and cost/safety, to explain clearly why a compromise is chosen rather than the conditions that maximise yield alone.
Indicative content:
- A lower temperature would increase the equilibrium yield of ammonia, because the forward reaction is exothermic and equilibrium shifts to favour the exothermic direction as temperature decreases.
- However, a much lower temperature would make the reaction rate far too slow, so it would take too long to reach equilibrium and would not be economically viable.
- A higher pressure would also increase the equilibrium yield, because there are fewer moles of gas on the product side (4 moles of reactant gas forming 2 moles of product gas), so increasing pressure shifts equilibrium towards the side with fewer gas molecules.
- However, much higher pressures than 200 atmospheres would require very strong, expensive reaction vessels and pipework, increasing capital cost, and would raise safety risks.
- 450C is a compromise: it is high enough to give a reasonably fast rate of reaction (so ammonia is produced quickly enough to be profitable), even though it gives a lower equilibrium yield than a lower temperature would.
- 200 atmospheres is also a compromise: it increases the yield without needing excessively expensive, high-pressure equipment.
- Any unreacted nitrogen and hydrogen are recycled back into the reactor, so even though the percentage yield at equilibrium is not maximised, the overall process still produces ammonia efficiently and profitably.

Question 16

(a) M1 moles of N2 = 56 / 28 = 2 mol
(a) M1 uses the 1 : 2 mole ratio of N2 : NH3 from the equation to find 4 mol NH3 (dependent on first mark; ft their moles of N2)
(a) A1 mass of NH3 = 4 x 17 = 68 g cao
(a) Answer: 68 g
(b) M1 percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) x 100 = (51 / 68) x 100 (ft their theoretical yield from part (a))
(b) A1 75% cao
(b) Answer: 75%

Question 17

(a) B1 ammonia + nitric acid -> ammonium nitrate
(a) Answer: ammonia + nitric acid -> ammonium nitrate
(b) B1 neutralisation (acid-base reaction) (oe)
(b) Answer: It is a neutralisation (acid-base) reaction.
(c) B1 it provides nitrogen from both the ammonium ion and the nitrate ion, so it has a high percentage of nitrogen for plant growth (oe)
(c) Answer: It contains nitrogen in both the ammonium ion and the nitrate ion, giving it a high percentage of nitrogen, which plants need to grow.

Question 18

(a) M1 identifies 2 N atoms, 4 H atoms and 3 O atoms in NH4NO3, and sets up (2 x 14) + (4 x 1) + (3 x 16)
(a) A1 Mr = 80 cao
(a) Answer: 80
(b) M1 percentage N = (28 / 80) x 100 (ft their Mr from part (a))
(b) A1 35% cao
(b) Answer: 35%

Question 19

Level 1 (1-2): Simple, isolated statements are made about potassium chloride and/or potassium sulfate, with little or no comparison. No supported conclusion is reached.
Level 2 (3-4): Some relevant factors (for example cost, potassium content, or effect on crops) are compared, but the answer does not weigh the factors against each other to reach a fully supported conclusion.
Level 3 (5-6): A detailed, balanced evaluation compares cost, percentage of potassium, effect on sensitive crops, and any nutritional benefit of sulfur, leading to a well-reasoned conclusion about which compound is more suitable for general-purpose use, recognising that the best choice may depend on the crop being grown.
Indicative content:
- Potassium chloride is cheaper to manufacture and contains a higher percentage of potassium by mass, so a smaller mass of fertiliser is needed to supply the same amount of potassium, which reduces transport and application costs.
- However, chloride ions can be harmful to chloride-sensitive crops such as tobacco and some fruits, so potassium chloride is not suitable for every crop a general-purpose fertiliser might be used on.
- Potassium sulfate contains sulfur, which is itself a useful plant nutrient (needed to make some proteins), so it can provide an additional benefit beyond just potassium and nitrogen/phosphorus.
- Potassium sulfate is more expensive to produce and has a lower percentage of potassium, meaning more fertiliser (and more transport) may be needed to supply the same amount of potassium.
- For a general-purpose fertiliser sold to a wide range of arable farmers, potassium chloride's lower cost and higher potassium content make it the more practical default choice overall, since most common arable crops (e.g. wheat, barley) are not particularly chloride-sensitive.
- However, potassium sulfate would be the better choice specifically for farmers growing chloride-sensitive crops, or where the extra sulfur is agriculturally useful, showing that the 'better' choice depends on the intended crop as well as on cost.
- A balanced conclusion should weigh cost and potassium content against crop sensitivity and any nutritional value of sulfur, rather than choosing one compound as universally best.

Question 20

(a) B1 there are 4 moles of gas on the reactant side (1 mol N2 + 3 mol H2) and 2 moles of gas on the product side (2 mol NH3) (oe)
(a) B1 increasing the pressure shifts the position of equilibrium in the direction that produces fewer moles of gas, to reduce the pressure/oppose the change (oe)
(a) B1 this means the equilibrium shifts to the right/towards the product side (oe)
(a) B1 so a higher pressure produces a greater equilibrium yield of ammonia (oe)
(a) Answer: There are 4 moles of gas on the reactant side but only 2 moles of gas on the product side. Increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the side with fewer gas molecules, which is the product (ammonia) side, so a higher pressure increases the equilibrium yield of ammonia.

Mark my answers

Using Resources - Worksheets, Questions and Revision

More on this topic

Next in this strand

C10 Using Resources

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20