Science: Full Practice Paper 10 Worksheet with Answers

Revision Library

revisionlibrary.co.uk

13+ · Science

CE.S-T10 Science: Full Practice Paper 10

ISEB COMMON ENTRANCE CE.S-T10 · Calculator allowed · about 60 minutes

Total Marks

Name: _______________________________ Date: ____ / ____ / ______

Answer ALL questions. Show all your working.

1

Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart, and has thick, muscular, elastic walls to withstand high pressure?

A) Vein
B) Artery
C) Capillary
D) Valve

(Total for Question 1 is 1 mark)

2

Which organ in the human digestive system produces bile, a substance that helps to break down (emulsify) fats?

A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Gall bladder
D) Stomach

(Total for Question 2 is 1 mark)

3

Which term describes an animal, such as a human, that maintains a constant, warm body temperature regardless of the temperature of its surroundings?

A) Ectothermic
B) Endothermic
C) Herbivorous
D) Nocturnal

(Total for Question 3 is 1 mark)

4

Complete the two missing words in these sentences about the human breathing system.

(a)Air travels down the trachea and bronchi into the lungs, ending in millions of tiny air sacs called ______, where gas exchange takes place.(1)

(b)The domed sheet of muscle beneath the lungs that contracts and flattens to help draw air into the lungs during breathing in is called the ______.(1)

(Total for Question 4 is 2 marks)

5

Kwame investigates how the length of time spent exercising affects his pulse rate. He measures his resting pulse rate, then skips rope for different lengths of time, resting for five minutes between each test to allow his pulse to return to normal. Immediately after each period of skipping, he counts his pulse for 15 seconds and multiplies the count by 4 to calculate his pulse rate in beats per minute.

Time spent skipping (s): 30	60	90	120
Pulse rate (beats per minute): 96	112	128	136

(a)Identify the independent variable in Kwame's investigation.(1)

(b)State one variable that Kwame kept the same to make this a fair test.(1)

(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)

(d)Suggest why counting the pulse for only 15 seconds immediately after exercise, and then multiplying by 4, gives a more useful result than timing a full 60 seconds.(1)

(Total for Question 5 is 4 marks)

6

Freya investigates how light intensity affects the rate of photosynthesis in a piece of pondweed (Elodea). She places the pondweed in a beaker of water with a lamp positioned at different distances away, and counts the number of bubbles of gas released by the pondweed in one minute at each distance.

Distance of lamp from pondweed (cm): 10	20	30	40
Bubbles counted per minute: 48	30	19	12

(a)Name the gas released by the pondweed as bubbles during photosynthesis.(1)

(b)Identify the independent variable in Freya's investigation.(1)

(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)

(d)State one variable Freya should keep the same to make this a fair test.(1)

(Total for Question 6 is 4 marks)

7

Describe the function of each of these three parts of the human urinary (excretory) system: the kidneys, the ureters, and the bladder.

(Total for Question 7 is 3 marks)

8

Answer these questions about microorganisms and how the body is protected from disease.

(a)Name the process by which a weakened or inactive form of a pathogen is used to give the body future protection against a disease, by causing it to produce antibodies.(1)

(b)Explain why antibiotics are effective at treating bacterial infections, but not viral infections such as the common cold.(1)

(c)State one way that the spread of a contagious respiratory illness, such as flu, can be reduced.(1)

(d)Explain why it is important not to overuse antibiotics.(1)

(Total for Question 8 is 4 marks)

9

Saoirse plants cress seeds in three identical trays of damp cotton wool. She places Tray 1 in a warm, bright room, Tray 2 in a warm, dark cupboard, and Tray 3 in a cold, dark place (a closed fridge). She checks all three trays for signs of germination after five days.

(a)Explain why comparing Tray 1 and Tray 2 alone would test the effect of light on germination, but comparing Tray 1 and Tray 3 alone would not be a fair test of a single variable.(1)

(b)Identify one variable, other than light and temperature, that should be kept the same across all three trays for this to be a valid comparison.(1)

(c)Predict which tray is most likely to show the best germination and growth after five days, giving a reason.(1)

(Total for Question 9 is 3 marks)

10

In a woodland food web, oak tree leaves are eaten by caterpillars, caterpillars are eaten by small birds, and small birds are eaten by sparrowhawks (the top predator). Explain what would be likely to happen to the population sizes of caterpillars, small birds and oak trees if all the sparrowhawks in the woodland died out due to disease, and why these changes would occur.

(Total for Question 10 is 6 marks)

11

Which of these processes is a physical change, meaning no new substance is formed?

A) Burning magnesium ribbon
B) Melting ice
C) Rusting of an iron nail
D) Baking a cake

(Total for Question 11 is 1 mark)

12

Which particle in an atom has a negative charge and is found orbiting the nucleus?

A) Proton
B) Neutron
C) Electron
D) Nucleus

(Total for Question 12 is 1 mark)

13

Complete the two missing words about acids and pH.

(a)A substance with a pH of exactly 7, which is neither acidic nor alkaline, is described as ______.(1)

(b)The piece of apparatus used to add small, precisely measured volumes of one solution to another, drop by drop, during a neutralisation reaction is called a ______.(1)

(Total for Question 13 is 2 marks)

14

Ffion investigates how the concentration of hydrochloric acid affects the rate of reaction with marble chips (calcium carbonate). She adds the same mass of marble chips to 50 cm3 of hydrochloric acid at four different concentrations, and measures the volume of carbon dioxide gas produced after 60 seconds using a gas syringe.

Concentration of acid (mol/dm3): 0.5	1.0	1.5	2.0
Volume of gas produced in 60s (cm3): 18	34	47	52

(a)Identify the independent variable in Ffion's investigation.(1)

(b)State one variable Ffion kept the same to make this a fair test.(1)

(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)

(d)Explain, in terms of particles, why increasing the concentration of the acid increases the rate of reaction.(1)

(Total for Question 14 is 4 marks)

15

Calculate the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3. (Relative atomic masses: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16.)

(Total for Question 15 is 2 marks)

16

A pupil wants to electroplate a steel spoon with a thin layer of copper, using electrolysis, a beaker of copper sulfate solution, a piece of pure copper, a power supply and wires.

(a)State which electrode (positive or negative) the steel spoon should be connected to, and which electrode the piece of pure copper should be connected to.(1)

(b)Name the ion in the copper sulfate solution that is attracted to, and deposited onto, the steel spoon.(1)

(c)Describe what happens to the mass of the copper electrode (anode) during electroplating, and explain why.(1)

(d)Suggest one reason why electroplating steel cutlery with copper, or another metal, might be useful.(1)

(Total for Question 16 is 4 marks)

17

Answer these questions about the reactivity of Group 7 elements (the halogens).

(a)State the trend in reactivity of the Group 7 elements (the halogens) as you go down the group.(1)

(b)Chlorine is more reactive than bromine. Predict what would be observed if chlorine gas is bubbled through a colourless solution of potassium bromide.(1)

(c)Write a word equation for the reaction between chlorine and potassium bromide.(1)

(Total for Question 17 is 3 marks)

18

Ishaan is trying to work out whether a sample of white powder is pure sodium chloride or is contaminated with another substance. He heats a small sample of the powder gently and records the temperature at which it completely melts, then repeats this with a sample of pure sodium chloride (known melting point 801 degrees C) for comparison.

(a)Suggest what Ishaan should expect to observe about the melting point of an impure substance, compared with the melting point of the pure substance.(1)

(b)Ishaan's powder sample melts completely at 764 degrees C, over a range of several degrees, rather than sharply at a single temperature. State what this suggests about the powder.(1)

(c)Identify one variable Ishaan should keep the same between the two tests to make this a fair comparison.(1)

(d)Suggest one other method, other than measuring melting point, that could help confirm the identity of an unknown white solid.(1)

(Total for Question 18 is 4 marks)

19

Answer these questions about the extraction of metals, using the reactivity series.

(a)Explain, in terms of reactivity, why gold is found in the Earth as the pure, uncombined metal, but iron is found combined with oxygen, as iron oxide, in its ore.(1)

(b)Name the process used to extract a metal, such as iron, from its metal oxide ore by reacting it with carbon.(1)

(c)Explain why a metal that is more reactive than carbon, such as aluminium, cannot be extracted from its ore using carbon, and must instead be extracted using electrolysis.(1)

(d)State one reason why extracting aluminium by electrolysis is more expensive than extracting iron using carbon.(1)

(Total for Question 19 is 4 marks)

20

Increasing the temperature of a reaction mixture increases the rate of a chemical reaction. Explain, in terms of the particles involved and their energy, why this happens.

(Total for Question 20 is 6 marks)

21

Which instrument is used to measure the current flowing through a component in a circuit?

A) Voltmeter
B) Ammeter
C) Thermometer
D) Barometer

(Total for Question 21 is 1 mark)

22

Which of these is an example of a non-renewable energy resource?

A) Wind
B) Solar
C) Natural gas
D) Hydroelectric

(Total for Question 22 is 1 mark)

23

Complete the two missing words about forces.

(a)The force that acts between two touching surfaces, opposing motion between them, is called ______.(1)

(b)The force per unit area acting on a surface, measured in units of pascals (Pa), is called ______.(1)

(Total for Question 23 is 2 marks)

24

Priya investigates how the length of a spring changes when different weights are hung from it. Its natural (unstretched) length is 10 cm. She hangs weights of increasing size from the spring and measures its total length each time.

Weight added (N): 0	2	4	6	8
Length of spring (cm): 10	14	18	22	26

(a)Identify the independent variable in Priya's investigation.(1)

(b)State one variable Priya should keep the same to make this a fair test.(1)

(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)

(d)Calculate the extension of the spring (the increase in length from its natural length) when a 6 N weight is added.(1)

(Total for Question 24 is 4 marks)

25

A kettle transfers 690,000 J of energy to heat water in 300 seconds. Calculate the power of the kettle, using the formula power = energy transferred / time, giving your answer in watts (W).

(Total for Question 25 is 2 marks)

26

Answer these questions about series and parallel electric circuits.

(a)State what happens to the total resistance of a circuit when two resistors are connected in series, compared with using just one of the resistors alone.(1)

(b)State what happens to the total current from the battery when two identical bulbs are connected in parallel, compared with when just one bulb is connected to the same battery.(1)

(c)Explain why, in a parallel circuit, each bulb shines with the same brightness as if it were connected alone to the battery, but in a series circuit with two identical bulbs, each bulb is dimmer than a single bulb would be.(1)

(Total for Question 26 is 3 marks)

27

Answer these questions about pressure.

(a)State the formula linking pressure, force and area.(1)

(b)Explain, in terms of pressure, why a person wearing snowshoes (with a large surface area) is less likely to sink into soft snow than a person wearing ordinary boots, even though both people have the same weight (force).(1)

(c)Explain why the pressure exerted by a liquid on a diver increases as the diver swims deeper below the surface.(1)

(d)A diver experiences a pressure of 150,000 Pa at a certain depth, compared with atmospheric pressure of 101,000 Pa at the surface. Suggest, giving a reason, whether this depth is likely to be close to the surface or a long way underwater.(1)

(Total for Question 27 is 4 marks)

28

Chidinma investigates how the length of a piece of resistance wire affects its resistance. She connects different lengths of the same wire into a circuit with a battery, an ammeter and a voltmeter, and calculates the resistance of each length using resistance = potential difference / current.

Length of wire (cm): 20	40	60	80
Resistance (ohms): 2.1	4.0	6.2	8.0

(a)Identify the independent variable in Chidinma's investigation.(1)

(b)State one variable Chidinma should keep the same to make this a fair test.(1)

(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)

(d)Explain, in terms of electrons, why a longer piece of wire has a greater resistance than a shorter piece of the same wire.(1)

(Total for Question 28 is 4 marks)

29

Olumide investigates how the length of a pendulum affects the time it takes to complete one full swing (its time period). He measures the time for 10 complete swings and divides by 10 to calculate the time period, repeating this for pendulums of different lengths.

Length of pendulum (cm): 20	40	60	80
Time period (s): 0.9	1.3	1.6	1.8

(a)Identify the independent variable in Olumide's investigation.(1)

(b)Suggest why Olumide measured the time for 10 complete swings and divided by 10, rather than timing a single swing.(1)

(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)

(d)State one variable Olumide should keep the same to make this a fair test.(1)

(Total for Question 29 is 4 marks)

30

A skydiver jumps from a plane and falls through the air before opening their parachute. Explain, in terms of the forces acting on the skydiver, why their speed increases at first but then becomes constant (they reach a terminal velocity) before the parachute is opened.

(Total for Question 30 is 6 marks)

Mark scheme · CE.S-T10 Science: Full Practice Paper 10

Question 1

B1 B cao
Answer: B) Artery

Question 2

B1 A cao
Answer: A) Liver

Question 3

B1 B cao
Answer: B) Endothermic

Question 4

(a) B1 alveoli cao
(a) Answer: Alveoli
(b) B1 diaphragm cao
(b) Answer: Diaphragm

Question 5

(a) B1 the length of time spent skipping (exercising) oe
(a) Answer: The length of time spent skipping.
(b) B1 any one of: the rest time between tests (5 minutes); the exercise performed (skipping); the method used to count pulse rate (15 seconds x4) oe
(b) Answer: For example, the rest time allowed between tests (5 minutes).
(c) B1 as the time spent skipping increases, pulse rate increases, although the increase becomes smaller between 90 and 120 seconds oe
(c) Answer: As exercise time increases, pulse rate increases, although the increase is smaller between 90 and 120 seconds.
(d) B1 pulse rate starts to fall quickly once exercise stops, so a quick 15-second count taken immediately gives a value closer to the true pulse rate right at the end of exercise, before it starts to recover (slow down) oe
(d) Answer: Because pulse rate falls quickly once exercise stops, so a quick count gives a more accurate reading of the pulse rate right at the end of exercise.

Question 6

(a) B1 oxygen cao
(a) Answer: Oxygen.
(b) B1 the distance of the lamp from the pondweed oe
(b) Answer: The distance of the lamp from the pondweed.
(c) B1 as the distance of the lamp from the pondweed increases, the number of bubbles produced per minute (the rate of photosynthesis) decreases oe
(c) Answer: As the lamp distance increases, the number of bubbles produced per minute decreases.
(d) B1 any one of: the type/size (species) of pondweed used; the temperature of the water; the time period counted (1 minute) oe
(d) Answer: For example, the temperature of the water.

Question 7

B1 the kidneys filter the blood, removing urea (waste) and excess water/salts, to produce urine oe
B1 the ureters carry urine from the kidneys down to the bladder oe
B1 the bladder stores urine until it is released (excreted) from the body oe
Answer: The kidneys filter the blood to make urine. The ureters carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder. The bladder stores urine until it is released from the body.

Question 8

(a) B1 vaccination (immunisation) cao
(a) Answer: Vaccination.
(b) B1 antibiotics work by killing bacteria (or stopping them reproducing), but viruses do not have the same cell structure/processes, so antibiotics cannot act on them oe
(b) Answer: Antibiotics kill bacteria, but viruses are structured differently, so antibiotics cannot act on them.
(c) B1 any one of: washing hands regularly; covering the mouth/nose when coughing or sneezing; staying away from others when ill; vaccination oe
(c) Answer: For example, covering the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing.
(d) B1 overuse increases the risk that bacteria develop resistance to the antibiotic (antibiotic resistance), making the antibiotic less effective at treating infections in future oe
(d) Answer: Overuse increases the risk of bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics, making them less effective in future.

Question 9

(a) B1 Tray 1 and Tray 3 differ in two variables (both light and temperature) at once, so any difference in germination between them could be caused by either variable, not light alone oe
(a) Answer: Because Tray 1 and Tray 3 differ in two variables (light and temperature) at once, not just one.
(b) B1 any one of: the amount of water given; the type/number of seeds used; the size of tray used oe
(b) Answer: For example, the amount of water given to each tray.
(c) B1 Tray 1; because germinating seedlings need both warmth and light (for growth), and Tray 1 is the only tray that is both warm and bright oe
(c) Answer: Tray 1, because it is the only tray that is both warm and bright, which seedlings need to germinate and grow well.

Question 10

Level 1 (1-2): Basic, isolated statement(s) about one population in the food web, with little or no reference to the wider food web or reasons for the change.
Level 2 (3-4): Some relevant ideas about how removing the sparrowhawks affects small bird, caterpillar and/or oak tree populations are given, but the chain of cause and effect through the food web is incomplete or not fully linked.
Level 3 (5-6): A clear, logically linked explanation tracing how the loss of the top predator leads to an increase in small birds, a decrease in caterpillars, and a knock-on effect on the oak trees, showing understanding of interdependence within the food web.
Indicative content:
- With no sparrowhawks present, small birds are no longer being preyed upon (eaten), so the population of small birds would be likely to increase.
- As the number of small birds increases, more caterpillars are eaten by the growing bird population, so the population of caterpillars would be likely to decrease.
- With fewer caterpillars feeding on the oak leaves, less damage is done to the trees, so the health/growth of the oak trees may improve (leaf damage decreases).
- Eventually, as caterpillars become scarce, the food supply for the enlarged bird population becomes limited, which may cause the bird population to fall back down again due to competition for food.
- These changes show that organisms in a food web are interdependent, so removing one organism, especially a top predator, affects the population sizes of others throughout the whole food web, not only the organisms it directly eats.
- Over time, the populations are likely to settle into a new balance, without the sparrowhawks controlling small bird numbers directly.

Question 11

B1 B cao
Answer: B) Melting ice

Question 12

B1 C cao
Answer: C) Electron

Question 13

(a) B1 neutral cao
(a) Answer: Neutral.
(b) B1 burette cao
(b) Answer: Burette.

Question 14

(a) B1 the concentration of hydrochloric acid oe
(a) Answer: The concentration of hydrochloric acid.
(b) B1 any one of: the mass of marble chips; the volume of acid (50 cm3); the size of the marble chips; the temperature; the reaction time (60s) oe
(b) Answer: For example, the mass of marble chips used.
(c) B1 as the concentration of the acid increases, the volume of gas produced in 60 seconds increases, although the increase becomes smaller at higher concentrations oe
(c) Answer: As acid concentration increases, the volume of gas produced increases, although the increase gets smaller at higher concentrations.
(d) B1 a more concentrated acid contains more acid particles in the same volume, so there are more frequent collisions between acid particles and marble chip particles per second, increasing the rate of reaction oe
(d) Answer: A more concentrated acid has more acid particles per unit volume, so there are more frequent collisions with the marble chips, increasing the rate.

Question 15

M1 correct substitution: Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 x 16) oe
A1 100 cao
Answer: 100

Question 16

(a) B1 the steel spoon is connected to the negative electrode (cathode); the pure copper is connected to the positive electrode (anode) oe
(a) Answer: The spoon is connected to the negative electrode; the copper is connected to the positive electrode.
(b) B1 copper ions (Cu2+) cao
(b) Answer: Copper ions (Cu2+).
(c) B1 the mass of the copper electrode decreases, because copper atoms lose electrons to form copper ions, which move into the solution oe
(c) Answer: The mass of the copper electrode decreases, because copper atoms dissolve into the solution as ions.
(d) B1 any sensible reason, e.g. to improve appearance/give a shiny, attractive finish; to help prevent the steel from corroding/rusting oe
(d) Answer: For example, to give the cutlery a shiny, attractive appearance, or to help protect the steel from corrosion.

Question 17

(a) B1 reactivity decreases going down the group oe
(a) Answer: Reactivity decreases going down the group.
(b) B1 the solution would turn orange/brown, as chlorine displaces bromine from the potassium bromide (a displacement reaction occurs) oe
(b) Answer: The solution would turn orange/brown, as bromine is displaced.
(c) B1 chlorine + potassium bromide -> potassium chloride + bromine oe
(c) Answer: Chlorine + potassium bromide -> potassium chloride + bromine.

Question 18

(a) B1 an impure substance melts at a lower temperature than the pure substance, and melts over a range of temperatures rather than sharply at one temperature oe
(a) Answer: An impure substance melts at a lower temperature, over a range of temperatures.
(b) B1 this suggests the powder is impure (is not pure sodium chloride, and contains an impurity) oe
(b) Answer: This suggests the powder is impure and not pure sodium chloride.
(c) B1 any one of: the mass/amount of substance heated; the rate of heating; the type of heating apparatus used oe
(c) Answer: For example, the rate of heating used in both tests.
(d) B1 any sensible method, e.g. a flame test; testing solubility in water; testing the pH of a solution of the solid; chromatography (if a mixture) oe
(d) Answer: For example, carrying out a flame test on the solid.

Question 19

(a) B1 gold is very unreactive, so it does not react with oxygen (or other elements) in the ground and remains as the pure metal, whereas iron is more reactive and readily reacts with oxygen to form iron oxide (its ore) oe
(a) Answer: Gold is very unreactive so stays as the pure metal; iron is more reactive and reacts with oxygen to form iron oxide.
(b) B1 reduction (extraction by reduction with carbon; smelting) cao
(b) Answer: Reduction (extraction using carbon).
(c) B1 carbon can only remove oxygen from (reduce) metals less reactive than carbon itself; since aluminium is more reactive than carbon, carbon cannot displace the oxygen from aluminium oxide, so electrolysis must be used instead oe
(c) Answer: Carbon cannot reduce metals more reactive than itself, so aluminium (more reactive than carbon) must be extracted by electrolysis instead.
(d) B1 electrolysis requires large amounts of electricity, which is expensive, whereas reduction with carbon does not oe
(d) Answer: Electrolysis uses large amounts of expensive electricity, unlike reduction with carbon.

Question 20

Level 1 (1-2): Basic, isolated statement(s) about temperature or particles, with little or no reference to collisions or activation energy.
Level 2 (3-4): Some relevant ideas about faster-moving particles and/or more frequent or more energetic collisions are given, but the link to activation energy and successful collisions is incomplete or not fully explained.
Level 3 (5-6): A clear, logically linked explanation showing that increasing temperature increases both the frequency of collisions and the proportion of collisions with enough energy to exceed the activation energy, leading to more successful collisions per second and a faster rate of reaction.
Indicative content:
- Increasing the temperature gives the reacting particles more kinetic energy, so they move around faster.
- Faster-moving particles collide with each other more often (there is a higher frequency of collisions) in a given time.
- A higher frequency of collisions alone would increase the rate somewhat, but the more significant effect of temperature is on the energy of each collision.
- As particles move faster, a greater proportion of the collisions occur with enough energy to overcome the activation energy needed for a reaction to take place.
- Collisions that have at least the activation energy are called successful (or effective) collisions, and only these result in a reaction taking place.
- Because both the frequency of collisions and, more importantly, the proportion of collisions with enough energy to be successful increase with temperature, the overall number of successful collisions per second increases, so the rate of reaction increases.

Question 21

B1 B cao
Answer: B) Ammeter

Question 22

B1 C cao
Answer: C) Natural gas

Question 23

(a) B1 friction cao
(a) Answer: Friction.
(b) B1 pressure cao
(b) Answer: Pressure.

Question 24

(a) B1 the weight (force) added to the spring oe
(a) Answer: The weight (force) added to the spring.
(b) B1 any one of: the spring used; how the spring is supported/clamped; the way the length is measured oe
(b) Answer: For example, using the same spring throughout.
(c) B1 as the weight added increases, the length of the spring increases steadily, by an equal amount (4 cm) for each 2 N added oe
(c) Answer: As weight increases, spring length increases steadily, by an equal amount (4 cm) for each 2 N added.
(d) B1 22 - 10 = 12 cm cao
(d) Answer: 12 cm.

Question 25

M1 correct substitution: power = 690000 / 300 oe
A1 2300 W cao
Answer: 2300 W

Question 26

(a) B1 the total resistance increases (it is the sum of the two resistances) oe
(a) Answer: The total resistance increases.
(b) B1 the total current from the battery increases, because there are now two paths for current to flow, so more current flows in total oe
(b) Answer: The total current from the battery increases.
(c) B1 in parallel, each bulb has the full potential difference of the battery across it, the same as if it were alone, so it shines at full brightness; in series, the potential difference is shared/split between the two bulbs, so each bulb gets less potential difference and is dimmer oe
(c) Answer: In parallel, each bulb gets the full voltage, so shines fully; in series, voltage is shared between the bulbs, so each is dimmer.

Question 27

(a) B1 pressure = force / area cao
(a) Answer: Pressure = force / area.
(b) B1 since pressure = force/area, spreading the same force (weight) over a larger area (the snowshoe) results in a smaller pressure on the snow, so the person is less likely to sink oe
(b) Answer: Snowshoes spread the same weight over a larger area, reducing the pressure on the snow, so the person is less likely to sink.
(c) B1 as depth increases, there is a greater weight/height of liquid pushing down from above, so the pressure exerted by the liquid on the diver increases with depth oe
(c) Answer: As depth increases, more liquid presses down from above, increasing the pressure.
(d) B1 a long way underwater (a substantial depth), because the pressure (150,000 Pa) is considerably higher than atmospheric pressure alone (101,000 Pa), showing a large additional pressure from a significant depth of water above the diver oe
(d) Answer: A long way underwater, because the pressure is considerably higher than atmospheric pressure alone.

Question 28

(a) B1 the length of the wire oe
(a) Answer: The length of the wire.
(b) B1 any one of: the type/material of wire; the thickness (diameter) of the wire; the temperature of the wire oe
(b) Answer: For example, using wire of the same thickness throughout.
(c) B1 as the length of the wire increases, the resistance increases, roughly in proportion to length (doubling length roughly doubles resistance) oe
(c) Answer: As wire length increases, resistance increases, roughly in proportion to length.
(d) B1 a longer wire contains more atoms/ions for the flowing electrons to collide with as they move through it, so the electrons find it harder to pass through (there is more opposition to current flow), giving a greater resistance oe
(d) Answer: A longer wire has more atoms for electrons to collide with, making it harder for current to flow, so resistance is greater.

Question 29

(a) B1 the length of the pendulum oe
(a) Answer: The length of the pendulum.
(b) B1 timing a single swing is more likely to include a larger proportional timing error (e.g. due to reaction time); timing 10 swings and dividing by 10 reduces the effect of this error, giving a more accurate value for the time period oe
(b) Answer: Timing 10 swings and dividing by 10 reduces the effect of reaction-time errors, giving a more accurate result.
(c) B1 as the length of the pendulum increases, the time period increases, although the increase becomes smaller as length increases (the time period is not directly proportional to length) oe
(c) Answer: As pendulum length increases, the time period increases, although the increase becomes smaller at greater lengths.
(d) B1 any one of: the mass of the pendulum bob; the angle from which the pendulum is released; the person timing/timing method oe
(d) Answer: For example, using the same mass of pendulum bob each time.

Question 30

Level 1 (1-2): Basic, isolated statement(s) about weight or air resistance, with little or no reference to a changing resultant force or acceleration.
Level 2 (3-4): Some relevant ideas about weight and air resistance changing, or about the forces becoming balanced, are given, but the explanation of how this changes the skydiver's acceleration over time is incomplete or not fully linked.
Level 3 (5-6): A clear, logically linked explanation showing how the resultant force decreases as air resistance increases with speed, causing acceleration to decrease, until air resistance equals weight and the skydiver falls at a constant terminal velocity.
Indicative content:
- As the skydiver falls, two main forces act on them: their weight (gravity), acting downwards, and air resistance (drag), acting upwards, opposing their motion.
- At the start of the fall, the skydiver's speed is low, so air resistance is small; weight is much larger than air resistance, so there is a large resultant (unbalanced) force acting downwards.
- This resultant force causes the skydiver to accelerate (speed up) as they fall.
- As the skydiver's speed increases, the air resistance acting on them also increases.
- As air resistance increases, the resultant force (weight minus air resistance) gets smaller, so the skydiver's acceleration decreases, although they are still speeding up, just more slowly than before.
- Eventually, the skydiver's speed becomes great enough that air resistance increases until it becomes equal in size to their weight.
- When air resistance equals weight, the forces are balanced, so the resultant force is zero and the skydiver stops accelerating, falling at a constant maximum speed called terminal velocity.

Science: Full Practice Paper 10 - Worksheets, Questions and Revision

Next in this strand

CE.S-T10 Science: Full Practice Paper 10

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Question 27

Question 28

Question 29

Question 30

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Question 27

Question 28

Question 29

Question 30