Science: Full Practice Paper 9 - Worksheets, Questions and Revision

30 original exam-style questions - 14 pages of questions with a full mark scheme - free printable PDF.

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CE.S-T9 Science: Full Practice Paper 9

ISEB COMMON ENTRANCE CE.S-T9 · Calculator allowed · about 60 minutes
Total Marks
Name: _______________________________    Date: ____ / ____ / ______
Answer ALL questions. Show all your working.
1
Which nutrient in food is the main source of energy for the body and is broken down during digestion into simple sugars, such as glucose?
  • A) Protein
  • B) Carbohydrate
  • C) Vitamin
  • D) Fibre
(Total for Question 1 is 1 mark)
2
Which part of the human skeleton is mainly responsible for producing new red blood cells and white blood cells?
  • A) The skull
  • B) Bone marrow
  • C) Cartilage
  • D) Ligaments
(Total for Question 2 is 1 mark)
3
Complete the two missing words in these sentences about human reproduction and pregnancy.
(a)After fertilisation, the fertilised egg (zygote) travels to and implants into the lining of the ______.(1)
(b)The organ that develops in the uterus during pregnancy and allows oxygen, nutrients and waste products to be exchanged between the mother's blood and the fetus's blood is called the ______.(1)
(Total for Question 3 is 2 marks)
4
Which type of pathogen (disease-causing microorganism) is responsible for causing the common cold and influenza (flu)?
  • A) Bacterium
  • B) Virus
  • C) Fungus
  • D) Protist
(Total for Question 4 is 1 mark)
5
Aisha is investigating how the concentration of sugar solution affects the rate of carbon dioxide production by yeast during fermentation (respiration). She mixes the same volume of yeast suspension with 20 cm3 of sugar solution at four different concentrations, in a flask connected by a delivery tube to an upturned measuring cylinder full of water, and counts how many bubbles of gas collect in the measuring cylinder in 5 minutes, keeping the flask in a water bath at the same temperature each time.
Sugar concentration (%): 5101520
Bubbles collected in 5 minutes: 12264144
(a)Identify the independent variable in Aisha's investigation.(1)
(b)State one variable that Aisha kept the same to make this a fair test.(1)
(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)
(d)Suggest why the rate of fermentation increases less between 15% and 20% sugar concentration than it did at lower concentrations.(1)
(Total for Question 5 is 4 marks)
6
Describe the job of each of these three parts of the human breathing (ventilation) system: the diaphragm, the intercostal muscles, and the trachea.
(a)The diaphragm.(1)
(b)The intercostal muscles.(1)
(c)The trachea.(1)
(Total for Question 6 is 3 marks)
7
Describe the function of each of these three organs of the human reproductive system: the testes, the ovaries, and the uterus.
(Total for Question 7 is 3 marks)
8
Callum is investigating how the concentration of an alcohol-based hand sanitiser affects the growth of bacteria. He spreads the same amount of bacteria evenly onto four identical agar plates, then places a paper disc soaked in a different concentration of hand sanitiser in the centre of each plate. After incubating the plates for 48 hours, he measures the diameter of the clear zone (where no bacteria have grown) around each disc.
Hand sanitiser concentration (%): 20406080
Diameter of clear zone (mm): 6111516
(a)Identify the independent variable in Callum's investigation.(1)
(b)State one variable that Callum kept the same to make this a fair test.(1)
(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)
(d)Suggest what these results show about the effectiveness of hand sanitiser at different concentrations.(1)
(Total for Question 8 is 4 marks)
9
Zainab is investigating whether daisies are more densely distributed on a school playing field (which is regularly mown) than on a nearby verge (which is left unmown). She places a 0.5 m x 0.5 m (0.25 m2) quadrat at ten random points in each area, using random number coordinates to choose the positions, and counts the number of daisy plants inside each quadrat.

Playing field, daisies per quadrat (10 quadrats): 3, 5, 4, 6, 2, 5, 4, 3, 5, 3
Verge, daisies per quadrat (10 quadrats): 0, 1, 0, 2, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0
(a)Name the piece of equipment Zainab used to sample a fixed area in each location.(1)
(b)Explain why Zainab chose the position of each quadrat using random number coordinates, rather than choosing positions herself.(1)
(c)Calculate the mean number of daisies per quadrat on the playing field.(1)
(d)Using the mean numbers of daisies per quadrat, state and explain which area has the higher density of daisies.(1)
(Total for Question 9 is 4 marks)
10
Fish have a single circulatory system, in which blood passes through the heart once for each complete circuit of the body. Humans, however, have a double circulatory system, in which blood passes through the heart twice for each complete circuit: once through the pulmonary circuit (heart to lungs and back) and once through the systemic circuit (heart to the rest of the body and back). Explain why having a double circulatory system, rather than a single one, is an advantage for a large, active animal such as a human.
(Total for Question 10 is 6 marks)
11
Which subatomic particle is found in the nucleus of an atom and has a relative charge of +1?
  • A) Electron
  • B) Proton
  • C) Neutron
  • D) Ion
(Total for Question 11 is 1 mark)
12
Complete the two missing words in these sentences about hazard symbols used to label chemicals.
(a)The hazard symbol showing a flame is used to warn that a substance is ______.(1)
(b)The hazard symbol showing a skull and crossbones is used to warn that a substance is ______.(1)
(Total for Question 12 is 2 marks)
13
Which piece of equipment should be used to hold a test tube safely while heating its contents over a Bunsen burner?
  • A) Tongs
  • B) A test tube holder
  • C) A tripod
  • D) A mortar and pestle
(Total for Question 13 is 1 mark)
14
Farah investigates the dyes used in a green food colouring using paper chromatography. She places a small spot of the food colouring near the bottom of a strip of chromatography paper, then stands the paper in a shallow layer of solvent, which soaks up the paper, carrying the dyes with it.
(a)State what it would show if the chromatogram of the food colouring separated into two different spots, rather than staying as a single spot.(1)
(b)In Farah's chromatogram, the solvent front (the leading edge of the solvent) travelled 10 cm from the starting line, and one of the dye spots travelled 4 cm from the starting line. Calculate the Rf value of this dye spot, using Rf = distance travelled by spot / distance travelled by solvent.(2)
(c)Suggest how Farah could use Rf values to identify which specific dyes are present in the food colouring.(1)
(Total for Question 14 is 4 marks)
15
Describe three physical properties that are typical of most metals.
(Total for Question 15 is 3 marks)
16
Copper oxide is an insoluble black solid. Describe, in order, the main steps a pupil could follow to prepare a pure, dry sample of copper sulfate crystals by reacting copper oxide with dilute sulfuric acid.
(a)Describe the first step, involving warming the acid and adding the copper oxide.(1)
(b)Describe the next step, and explain why it is needed.(1)
(c)Describe how the pupil would obtain crystals from the copper sulfate solution.(1)
(d)Describe how the pupil would obtain the final dry crystals.(1)
(Total for Question 16 is 4 marks)
17
Malik is investigating how temperature affects the rate of reaction between magnesium ribbon and dilute hydrochloric acid. He adds an identical 3 cm length of magnesium ribbon to 20 cm3 of the same concentration of dilute hydrochloric acid, warmed to a different temperature each time, and uses a stopwatch to time how long it takes for the magnesium ribbon to completely disappear.
Temperature of acid (degrees C): 20304050
Time for ribbon to disappear (s): 88522917
(a)Identify the independent variable in Malik's investigation.(1)
(b)State one variable that Malik kept the same to make this a fair test.(1)
(c)Describe the relationship between temperature and the time taken for the ribbon to disappear.(1)
(d)Explain, in terms of particles, why increasing the temperature increases the rate of this reaction.(1)
(Total for Question 17 is 4 marks)
18
Calcium metal burns in oxygen to form calcium oxide.
(a)Balance this symbol equation for the reaction: Ca + O2 -> CaO(1)
(b)In an experiment, 10 g of calcium burns completely in oxygen, producing 14 g of calcium oxide. Calculate the mass of oxygen used in the reaction.(2)
(c)State whether this reaction is exothermic or endothermic, and give a reason for your answer.(1)
(Total for Question 18 is 4 marks)
19
Molten lead bromide (PbBr2) can be electrolysed, splitting it into its elements using electricity. It contains lead ions (Pb2+) and bromide ions (Br-).
(a)Name the product formed at the negative electrode (cathode), and explain, in terms of ions, why it forms there.(2)
(b)Name the product formed at the positive electrode (anode), and explain, in terms of ions, why it forms there.(2)
(Total for Question 19 is 4 marks)
20
Metals, such as copper, are good conductors of electricity, whereas non-metal solids, such as sulfur, generally are not. Explain, in terms of the structure of a metal and the particles it contains, why metals are able to conduct electricity.
(Total for Question 20 is 6 marks)
21
Which piece of equipment is connected in series in a circuit to measure the current flowing through it?
  • A) Voltmeter
  • B) Ammeter
  • C) Thermometer
  • D) Barometer
(Total for Question 21 is 1 mark)
22
Which of these statements about sound waves and light waves is correct?
  • A) Sound waves can travel through a vacuum, but light waves cannot.
  • B) Light waves can travel through a vacuum, but sound waves cannot.
  • C) Both sound waves and light waves can travel through a vacuum.
  • D) Neither sound waves nor light waves can travel through a vacuum.
(Total for Question 22 is 1 mark)
23
Complete the two missing words in these sentences about magnetism.
(a)The region of space around a magnet in which its magnetic force can act on other magnetic materials is called the magnetic ______.(1)
(b)The end of a freely suspended compass needle that points towards the Earth's north geographic pole is called the needle's ______-seeking pole.(1)
(Total for Question 23 is 2 marks)
24
Idris is investigating how the number of turns of insulated wire wrapped around an iron nail affects the strength of an electromagnet. He connects the coil to the same battery and switch each time, and measures strength by counting the maximum number of identical paperclips the electromagnet can pick up.
Number of turns of wire: 10203040
Maximum paperclips picked up: 36914
(a)Identify the independent variable in Idris's investigation.(1)
(b)State one variable that Idris kept the same to make this a fair test.(1)
(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)
(d)Explain, in terms of magnetic fields, why increasing the number of turns of wire increases the strength of the electromagnet.(1)
(Total for Question 24 is 4 marks)
25
A wind turbine is designed to transfer the kinetic energy of moving air (wind) into electrical energy. However, not all of the energy supplied to the turbine's blades ends up as electrical energy.
(a)State the useful energy transfer that takes place in the wind turbine.(1)
(b)State what happens to the rest of the energy supplied to the turbine, and name the form this wasted energy usually takes.(1)
(c)State the principle of conservation of energy that links the useful and wasted energy transferred by the turbine.(1)
(Total for Question 25 is 3 marks)
26
A sound wave travels through air at a speed of 340 m/s and has a frequency of 340 Hz. Using the formula wave speed = frequency x wavelength, calculate the wavelength of this sound wave.
(Total for Question 26 is 2 marks)
27
A spanner is used to turn a nut around a pivot (the centre of the nut).
(a)Calculate the moment (turning effect) produced when a force of 25 N is applied at a distance of 0.4 m from the pivot, using moment = force x distance from the pivot.(2)
(b)A different force is applied at a distance of 0.5 m from the pivot, and produces the same moment as in part (a). Calculate the size of this force.(2)
(Total for Question 27 is 4 marks)
28
Poppy is investigating how the angle of incidence affects the angle of refraction when a ray of light passes from air into a rectangular glass block. She uses a ray box to direct a ray of light at the flat surface of the glass block at different angles, measured from the normal (a line at right angles to the surface), and measures the angle of refraction of the ray inside the glass, also from the normal.
Angle of incidence (degrees): 20406080
Angle of refraction (degrees): 13253540
(a)Identify the independent variable in Poppy's investigation.(1)
(b)State one variable that Poppy kept the same to make this a fair test.(1)
(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)
(d)Explain why the light ray bends towards the normal as it passes from air into the glass block.(1)
(Total for Question 28 is 4 marks)
29
Layla is investigating how the height from which a rubber ball is dropped affects the height it bounces back up to. She drops the same ball from different heights above a hard floor, measured using a metre ruler clamped upright, and records the maximum height the ball bounces back up to each time.
Drop height (cm): 406080100
Bounce height (cm): 26395164
(a)Identify the independent variable in Layla's investigation.(1)
(b)State one variable that Layla kept the same to make this a fair test.(1)
(c)Describe the pattern shown by the results.(1)
(d)Explain why the ball never bounces back up to the same height it was dropped from.(1)
(Total for Question 29 is 4 marks)
30
The UK experiences warmer, longer days in summer and colder, shorter days in winter. This is not because the Earth is closer to the Sun in summer (in fact, the Earth's distance from the Sun changes very little over the year). Explain what actually causes the seasons on Earth.
(Total for Question 30 is 6 marks)
Mark scheme · CE.S-T9 Science: Full Practice Paper 9

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Question 27

Question 28

Question 29

Question 30